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jjthebluntyesterday at 11:30 PM1 replyview on HN

there'd be a discontinuity around 1066 since Normans brought over Latin-derived vocabulary aplenty, and overlayed germanic vocabulary. it's super evident if you learn Swedish (for example...very related to pre-1066 English) and have learned Latin (or French), while speaking English.


Replies

depressedpandatoday at 12:29 AM

Yeah. Try comparing texts written in Old English and Old Norse. It's basically the same language. (I'm not surprised at all that Beowulf takes place in Scandinavia.)

But I think they would both be easier to decipher for someone speaking Swedish than English.