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gjm11yesterday at 3:58 PM1 replyview on HN

Yup, it's common. (I'm fairly sure this or something very similar was the first way I ever saw it done.)


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thaumasiotesyesterday at 5:39 PM

Indeed, it's always presented that way.¹ It's very unsatisfying because it doesn't establish a 1:1 correspondence; it depends on the idea that if set A has the same cardinality as a superset of set B, then set B's cardinality cannot exceed set A's. Add the assumption that the natural numbers have the lowest possible infinite cardinality and the proof is technically complete.

I've read about an actual bijection between naturals and rationals, but I don't remember how it was done.

¹ Possibly in the more general form of showing the bijection between ℕ and ℤ².

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