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TheDongyesterday at 7:03 PM7 repliesview on HN

It depends how you define the market. In the 2001 microsoft case [0], the courts ruled Microsoft had a monopoly over the "Intel-based personal computer market".

Apple has a monopoly over the "M-chip" personal computer market. They have a monopoly over the iOS market with the app store. They have a monopoly over the driver market on macOS.

Like, Microsoft was found guilty of exploiting its monopoly for installing IE by default while still allowing other browser engines. On iOS, apple bundles safari by default and doesn't allow other browser engines.

If we apply the same standard that found MS a monopoly in the past, then Apple is obviously a monopoly, so at the very least I think it's fair to say that reasonable people can disagree about whether Apple is a monopoly or not.

[0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Microsoft_Cor....


Replies

hilsdevyesterday at 7:20 PM

I wouldn’t say it is obvious. Apple does not have the monopoly of ARM based PCs. Labeling it as a monopoly of M chips is not fair or accurate when comparing to MS on Intel. It’s also probably relevant that MS was not selling PCs or their own hardware. They had a monopoly on a market where you effectively had to use their software to use the hardware you bought from a different company. Because Apple is selling their own hardware and software as a single product, the consumer is not forced into restricting the hardware they bought by a second company’s policies.

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scott_wtoday at 1:01 PM

There’s no such thing as “monopoly on Apple-produced processors” because that’s absurd. The monopoly for MacBook would be “consumer laptops” most likely. Apple does not have a monopoly in consumer laptops to the best of my knowledge.

Underphilyesterday at 7:17 PM

I don't think any of what you're describing are legal "monopolies". I don't have a single Apple product in my life but I'm fairly sure there's nothing I'm prevented from doing because of that.

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raw_anon_1111yesterday at 7:11 PM

That’s not how monopoly definitions work. That makes about as much sense as saying Nintendo has a monopoly on Nintendo consoles or Ford has a monopoly on Mustangs

SllXyesterday at 10:40 PM

Yes. If you define the market in a ridiculous manner and convince a court to go along with it, anybody can be a monopoly.

But the M series are an Apple product line designed by Apple with a ARM license and produced on contract by TSMC for use in other Apple products.

Don’t assume the facts from another case automatically apply in other cases.

Or as Justice Jackson once put it: “Other cases presenting different allegations and different records may lead to different conclusions”

JumpCrisscrossyesterday at 8:24 PM

> Apple has a monopoly over the "M-chip" personal computer market. They have a monopoly over the iOS market with the app store

When a company is deemed an illegal monopoly, the DoJ basically becomes part of management. Antitrust settlements focus on germane elements, e.g. spin offs. But they also frequently include random terms of political convenience.

I don’t think we want a precedent where companies having a product means they have an automatic monopoly on said product.

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brooksttoday at 4:52 AM

Reductionism is so cringe.

Intel sold chips to anyone. Anyone could make Intel computers.

Apple does not sell chips to anyone. Nobody else can make m-series computers.

Your argument is basically that Ford has a monopoly on selling mustangs because standard oil had a monopoly on selling oil.