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SideQuarktoday at 6:56 PM6 repliesview on HN

This isn't unique, or even the least compute way to do this. For example, let f(x,y) = 1/(x-y). This too is universal. I think there's a theorem stating for any finite set of binary operators there is a single one replacing it.

write x#y for 1/(x-y).

x#0 = 1/(x-0) = 1/x, so you get reciprocals. Then (x#y)#0 = 1/((1/(x-y)) - 0) = x-y, so subtraction.

it's common problem to show in any (insert various algebraic structure here ) inverse and subtraction gives all 4 elementary ops.

I haven't checked this carefully, but this note seems to give a short proof (modulo knowing some other items...) https://dmg.tuwien.ac.at/goldstern/www/papers/notes/singlebi...


Replies

ano-thertoday at 7:25 PM

Good find.

It cites a paper from 1935: https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.21.5.252

Here is a bit more: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/57465/can-we-unify-additi...

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strbeantoday at 8:03 PM

I think this is the novel bit:

> This includes constants such as e, pi, and i; arithmetic operations including addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and exponentiation as well as the usual transcendental and algebraic functions.

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LolWolftoday at 8:00 PM

I don't think this can do any of the "standard" constants or what we generally consider to be closed-form expressions, though ! (E.g., no e, pi, exp, log, etc.)

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TimTheTinkertoday at 7:48 PM

> This too is universal

Could that be used to derive trigonometric functions with single distinct expressions?

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marton78today at 7:55 PM

You win the internet today!

doctorpanglosstoday at 6:58 PM

yes, but are you currently experiencing both hypergraphia and chatbot AI induced psychosis while also thinking about this problem?

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