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LPisGoodyesterday at 6:24 AM2 repliesview on HN

I’m not sure if the explanation in the second part holds water. Wouldn’t the reduction in property value be the same as the ammortized free rent?


Replies

Arainachyesterday at 6:53 AM

No, because the mortgage companies' valuation is based on rent and does not consider any incentives.

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netcanyesterday at 7:15 AM

No. Not if the valuations and downstream effects of valuations are formulaic, which they often are.