> but I would like to understand the problem, too
But why should it be the case that this is always possible?
It's entirely reasonable that the set of useful mathematical proofs is a proper superset of human intelligible useful proofs.
In fact, to argue the contrary would imply there is something incredibly remarkable about human cognition.
No, it doesn’t imply that.
Just that the set of proofs a human can interpret and the set of statements a human can understand overlap; conversely, you require that the statements/theorems humans can understand be a larger class than the proofs they can understand.
To me, it’s not obvious which of those should be true:
- can we only understand theorems for which we comprehend their proof?
- or can we understand theorems despite not comprehending the proof structure?
Within the mathematics community, opinions differ. But you’re elevating your perspective on that question into a law, without any evidence.
> It's entirely reasonable that the set of useful mathematical proofs is a proper superset of human intelligible useful proofs.
If you can't explain something in a way that a child could understands it, you don't fully understand it either.