> The Bipartite graph class is also a bit silly in this case, since it's by definition the 2-colorable graphs
Be a little bit careful here: another common textbook definitions of bipartite graphs are:
- a graph is bipartite iff it has no odd circle.
- (for people who are into algebraic/spectral graph theory :-) ) a graph is bipartite iff its spectrum is symmetric.
I personally like the latter two definitions because the "normal" definition of a bipartite graph suggests that
1-colorable, 2-colorable, 3-colorable, 4-colorable, ...
graphs are conceptually very "similar" (k-colorable with different values for k).
But we now that it is very easy (i.e. there exists a polynomial-time algorithm) to decide if a graph is 1- or 2-colorable, but from k=3 on, it is NP-complete to decide whether a given graph is k-colorable.
Using one of these alternative definitions (and then showing "a graph is bipartite iff it is 2-colorable" as a lemma/theorem) makes it very clear that from a complexity point being 1- or 2-colorable is (assuming P != NP) something very different from being k-colorable for k >= 3.
One curiosity that in the case of infinite graphs, "no odd cycles" doesn't imply "2-colorable" without the axiom of choice for families of 2-element sets [0]. It's somewhat similar to how in the definition of a well-founded relation, "no infinite descending chains" doesn't imply "every nonempty subset has a minimal element" without dependent choice.
(One of my recent projects has been trying to prove the existence of a 2-colorable subgraph for a certain class of infinite graphs in ZF, which has led me surprisingly deep into choice principles and models refuting them.)
[0] https://mathoverflow.net/a/453944