That sounds to me like fuzzily having a version of the book. That is, it's more like having the book, than having nothing would be.
You seem to be arguing that a translation, etc is not literally having the book, which is something that has always been my stance as well.
You're trying to use the Socratic method to show that the havingness of the book is a spectrum, and I'm taking the position of a hardliner who considers that "having the book" means having the original string of symbols from beginning to end, and anything besides that is not having the book. I'm trying to show you that your line of argumentation is uncompelling to such a person.