> The middle class became the dominant class post-WWII.

I've heard that before, and it's simply not true. Pre-revolutionary colonial America had a thriving middle class.

Consider this. A couple of decades ago, a sunken Missisouppi river steamboat was found in the mud. It had foundered before the Civil War, I don't recall the date. And so it was dug out, and researchers went over its cargo.

They were shocked to find out what the cargo was.

It was everything needed for a general store. Pots, pans, jars, knives, forks, shoes, clothing, preserved meats and candies, tools, etc. Nothing in it was for rich people, it was all meant for the middle class. And it was packed to the gills with that cargo.

If you like, look at paintings and photographs of towns in the 1800s. Do you see a couple mansions, and a bunch of shacks? Nope. You see middle class homes, general stores, all signs of a prosperous middle class.

> all more effective when provided by the government

Government providing that has a pretty sorry history.

> due to the price of those assets going up

The price of the asset is a function of its ability to create value.

Do me a favor and point to an American history book that informed your point of view. But fair is fair, I submit:

https://www.amazon.com/ALASTAIR-COOKES-AMERICA-Alastair-Cook...

Read it and tell me that the US consisted of overlords and serfs. Yes, I know about the slave South, which was an overlord/serf economy.