> A modest inflation-adjusted multiple of the original value of the options seems reasonable.
But why? The OP (apparently) owns some of Nvidia. It seems reasonable to get that ownership recognised.
While not a letter of the law argument, there's a spirit of the law argument here that comes from the ideas like adverse posession and the statute of limitations. The OP didn't use or even worry about the options/shares for 30 some years: the time to speak up and assert ownership was literal decades ago.
If someone has built a house on a remote lot you claim to own, while making property improvements and paying taxes, but you've never visited for 30 years; are you really entitled to swoop in and seize their house now?
The simple reason is that if we allow litigating over ownership based on 30-year-old facts, nothing is ever settled. Maybe your house, with its 30 year mortgage paid off, actually belongs to someone else. Maybe that kid you shoved in 3rd grade comes back 40 years later and asserts their lifelong earnings were reduced by $100m because of the trauma.
The statute of limitations regime exists to provide stability. If you are harmed, you have some amount of time to make a claim.
Doing away with the statute of limitations would result in more injustice, not less.