No, the UK’s equivalent law specifically requires human intent and mens rea:
https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1990/18/section/3 (1b.)
https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1990/18/section/1 (1c.)
I’m told that the UK is a relatively authoritarian country where citizens have no real rights, so perhaps it can be charged anyway, but the plain language of the statute would seem to bar it.
> Unauthorised acts with intent to impair, or with recklessness as to impairing,
Can you see the ", or with recklessness as to impairing".
Edit: You seem troubled. The UK is not like you describe at all. We do not have ICE running around. Instead, we have the opposite problem.