In my understanding, the context is that it's not clear whether it's your data really (e.g. no access to original phone number). IANAL, but it seems that proven ownership is a necessary pre-requisit for the right to be applicable.
If there are publicly-available records connecting you to a phone number, lack of immediate access shouldn't be a disqualifier.
If there are publicly-available records connecting you to a phone number, lack of immediate access shouldn't be a disqualifier.