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broken-kebab • yesterday at 9:59 AM • 1 reply • view on HN

In my understanding, the context is that it's not clear whether it's your data really (e.g. no access to original phone number). IANAL, but it seems that proven ownership is a necessary pre-requisit for the right to be applicable.


Replies

59percentmore • yesterday at 12:36 PM

If there are publicly-available records connecting you to a phone number, lack of immediate access shouldn't be a disqualifier.

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