> The idea is we can't actually prove a non-computable real number exists without purposefully having axioms that allow for deriving non-computable things.
Sorry, what do you mean?
The real numbers are uncountable. (If you're talking about constructivism, I guess it's more complicated. There's some discussion at https://mathoverflow.net/questions/30643/are-real-numbers-co... . But that is very niche.)
The set of things we can compute is, for any reasonable definition of computability, countable.
I hold that the discovery of computation was as significant as the set theory paradoxes and should have produced a similar shift in practice. No one does naive set theory anymore. The same should have happened with classical mathematics but no one wanted to give up excluded middle, leading to the current situation. Computable reals are the ones that actually exist. Non-computable reals (or any other non-computable mathematical object) exist in the same way Russel’s paradoxical set exists, as a string of formal symbols.
Formal reasoning is so powerful you can pretend these things actually exist, but they don’t!
I see you are already familiar with subcountability so you know the rest.
I am talking about constructivism, but that's not entirely the same as saying the reals are not uncountable. One of the harder things to grasp one's head around in logic is that there is a difference between, so to speak, what a theory thinks is true vs. what is actually true in a model of that theory. It is entirely possible to have a countable model of a theory that thinks it is uncountable. (In fact, there is a theorem that countable models of first order theories always exist, though it requires the Axiom of Choice).